9.14 - Practice Questions Set 3

Module: Type III Low-Pressure Appliances
Format: 25-question closed-book EPA 608-style Type III practice set
Regulatory basis: Module 9 material verified through August 13, 2026
Purpose: Provide a third complete Type III practice attempt covering all major examination areas through mixed scenarios, value distinctions, and common Type III exam traps.

Instructions

Select the one best answer for each question.

Read every choice before answering. Pay particular attention to words such as not, most, best, before, after, maximum, absolute, and required.

Complete this set without notes or the answer file if you are using it as a readiness check.

These are original EPA 608-style practice questions developed from Module 9 content and exam-style topic patterns. They are not actual, leaked, or official EPA or certifying-provider examination questions.

Question 1

A centrifugal chiller uses a refrigerant whose liquid-phase saturation pressure is below 45 psia at 104°F. Which statement best explains why the appliance falls within Type III scope?

A. The compressor type alone determines the certification type

B. Any machine called a chiller is Type III

C. The refrigerant pressure category controls; a centrifugal compressor does not by itself make the appliance Type III

D. Only the refrigerant charge size determines the type

Question 2

A shut-down low-pressure chiller is warmer than usual and a local refrigerant-side pressure is slightly above atmospheric pressure. If a leak exists at that location, which direction is possible?

A. Air must always leak inward regardless of local pressure

B. Only condenser water can move through the leak

C. No flow can occur because the appliance is Type III

D. Refrigerant can leak outward

Question 3

Which statement correctly distinguishes a purge unit from a refrigerant recovery machine?

A. A purge unit removes noncondensables during chiller operation/service, while a recovery machine removes refrigerant from the appliance

B. A purge unit removes the entire refrigerant charge; a recovery machine removes only air

C. Both devices are only water pumps

D. A recovery machine is part of the normal centrifugal compressor

Question 4

A low-pressure chiller has high condenser pressure. Before blaming noncondensables alone, what should also be checked?

A. Only the color of the recovery cylinder

B. Condenser-water temperature, flow, and fouling conditions

C. Whether the chiller has a rupture disc

D. Whether the oil heater is exactly 130°F

Question 5

A chiller manufacturer’s service instructions specify a lower allowable leak-test pressure than the Type III 10 psig exam-preparation maximum. Which limit should be used in the field?

A. 10 psig because exam values always override equipment instructions

B. 15 psig because it is a recovery-vessel value

C. The manufacturer’s lower allowable limit

D. Any pressure below the nitrogen-cylinder pressure

Question 6

Which method is the traditional Type III choice for locating a leaking heat-transfer tube rather than a leaking water box?

A. Probe the purge discharge with an oxygen sensor

B. Pressurize the chiller with compressed air to 25 psig

C. Loosen the water-box cover while the pump is running

D. Use a hydrostatic tube test kit

Question 7

Why should bulk liquid normally be removed before relying on vapor recovery from a low-pressure chiller?

A. Liquid recovery removes a large refrigerant mass more quickly

B. Vapor recovery is prohibited on low-pressure appliances

C. Liquid recovery raises the chiller pressure to 15 psig

D. Removing liquid eliminates all refrigerant in the oil

Question 8

During the traditional normal Type III recovery arrangement, which group should be operating when the system is configured for water circulation?

A. Purge unit only

B. Chiller water pumps, recovery compressor, and recovery-condenser cooling water

C. Chiller compressor with all water pumps off

D. Rupture disc heater and oxygen supply

Question 9

During vapor recovery, which relationship between the traditional recovery-unit cutout and recovery-vessel rupture-disc values is correct?

A. The recovery-unit cutout is 15 psig and the vessel disc is 10 psig

B. Both are 25 mm Hg absolute

C. The recovery-unit cutout is 10 psig and the recovery-vessel rupture disc is 15 psig

D. Both are universal chiller relief settings

Question 10

During freeze-prevention planning, why should the water sides be drained before refrigerant recovery when a tube leak is suspected?

A. To increase water pressure across the failed tube

B. To make the refrigerant boil at a higher pressure

C. To allow the recovery unit to bypass its cutout

D. To prevent water from being driven into the low-pressure refrigerant circuit, where it can contaminate the system and contribute to freeze damage

Question 11

What is the main reason for heating chiller oil to the Type III exam value of 130°F before it is removed?

A. To drive refrigerant out of the oil so it can be recovered before oil removal

B. To keep more refrigerant dissolved in the oil

C. To raise the condenser-water temperature

D. To eliminate the Section 608 evacuation requirement

Question 12

After warmed oil has been drained from a low-pressure chiller, which statement is correct?

A. Oil removal automatically proves refrigerant recovery is complete

B. The appliance must still satisfy the applicable recovery/evacuation requirement

C. Any remaining refrigerant may be vented because the oil is gone

D. The system must be pressurized to 15 psig before further recovery

Question 13

A refrigerant blend must be withdrawn from its supply cylinder as liquid to maintain composition, but a low-pressure chiller is still in deep vacuum. What is the correct Type III principle?

A. Send unrestricted liquid directly into the chiller

B. Mix the liquid refrigerant with compressed air

C. Use an approved procedure to meter or vaporize the refrigerant as needed so vapor enters the deeply evacuated chiller initially

D. Skip the vapor-first requirement whenever a blend is used

Question 14

While charging through the manufacturer-designated evaporator charging valve, when should a technician switch from initial vapor charging to controlled liquid charging?

A. At one universal pressure that applies to every Type III refrigerant

B. Immediately after the first ounce of vapor enters

C. Only after the chiller is running at full load

D. When the manufacturer-approved procedure indicates the required pressure, temperature, water, and system conditions are safe

Question 15

The normal Type III evacuation table has two columns separated by November 15, 1993. What does that date refer to?

A. The manufacture or import date of the recovery/recycling equipment

B. The date the chiller was manufactured

C. The date the refrigerant was produced

D. The date the building received its certificate of occupancy

Question 16

A vacuum measurement on a low-pressure chiller is reported as 25 mm Hg absolute. Which interpretation is correct?

A. It is the same as 25 in. Hg vacuum

B. It is an absolute pressure close to 0.98 in. Hg absolute, not a 25-in. vacuum reading

C. It is the same as 25 psig

D. It is the traditional recovery-vessel rupture-disc pressure

Question 17

A normal, non-leaking low-pressure appliance is being prepared for disposal. What evacuation level applies under the current Table 1 rule?

A. 0 psig

B. 5 psig

C. 25 mm Hg absolute

D. 10 in. Hg vacuum

Question 18

Which condition is required before the special low-pressure non-major opening provision can be used?

A. The work must be major and the compressor must be removed

B. The refrigerant charge must exceed 200 lb

C. The appliance must use recovery equipment manufactured before 1993

D. The work must be non-major and evacuation of the appliance to the atmosphere is not to be performed after completion of the work

Question 19

During a post-service standing-vacuum evaluation, pressure rises after the vacuum source is isolated. Which interpretation is most technically sound?

A. The rise can result from moisture/outgassing or leakage and must be diagnosed; the pressure pattern alone is not absolute proof of one cause

B. Any rise proves only an external leak

C. Any rise proves only liquid refrigerant remains

D. A rise means the system has reached perfect vacuum

Question 20

A technician proposes placing one ordinary spring-loaded relief valve directly downstream of another as ‘extra protection.’ What is the correct response?

A. This is preferred because the second valve always doubles flow capacity

B. Do not use simple series relief valves as redundant protection; approved engineered relief arrangements are different

C. Cap the downstream valve so the upstream valve sees more pressure

D. Replace both valves with the evaporator charging valve

Question 21

A machinery-room refrigerant detector has alarmed, and a separate oxygen monitor reads 19.4% O₂. Which interpretation is correct?

A. The refrigerant detector is measuring oxygen, so the 19.4% reading can be ignored

B. The oxygen monitor is measuring refrigerant concentration, so no oxygen hazard can exist

C. The refrigerant alarm indicates target refrigerant in room air, and 19.4% O₂ is oxygen deficient because the OSHA threshold is below 19.5% O₂

D. A pressure gauge should be used instead because it measures both refrigerant concentration and oxygen

Question 22

Which statement about a refrigeration machinery room is correct under OSHA general-industry confined-space concepts?

A. Every machinery room is automatically a permit-required confined space

B. A machinery room is never hazardous because it is designed for equipment

C. Any room containing a chiller is automatically oxygen deficient

D. The actual space must meet the confined-space criteria; a machinery room is not automatically a confined space

Question 23

A rupture disc has opened during an abnormal pressure event. What should be done before returning the chiller to service?

A. Replace the disc as required and investigate and correct the cause of the overpressure event

B. Cap the relief outlet and restart immediately

C. Install a higher-pressure disc without checking the design

D. Leave the ruptured disc in place because it will reseal when pressure falls

Question 24

A large water-box cover is ready to be removed after the water side has been safely isolated, depressurized, and drained. What additional hazard must be planned for?

A. The cover will become weightless when the water is drained

B. The cover can be heavy and may require rated lifting and support equipment

C. The recovery-machine cutout must be raised to 15 psig

D. The refrigerant monitor must be used as a lifting indicator

Question 25

A leaking low-pressure component cannot reach 25 mm Hg absolute without substantial contamination of recovered refrigerant. Which statement is correct?

A. The leak allows the component to remain above atmospheric pressure

B. The technician may stop recovery at 5 psig

C. The leaking portion is taken to the lowest attainable level without substantial contamination, and that level may not exceed 0 psig

D. The entire appliance is exempt from recovery once any leak is found

Score

Score: _____ / 25

Readiness target: 22 / 25

Detailed answers and explanations for all three Type III practice sets will be provided in 9.15 - Answers and Explanations.md.